Property
Class Notes
This
case says that there is no implied covenant of quiet enjoyment in
Does
the landlord have to give you possession at the beginning of the term? Yes, they do.
The American Rule says that the landlord must only give the legal right
to possession, but it’s the tenant’s job to get the other person out. The English Rule says that the landlord has
to clear out the premises before the tenant moves in. The tenant must be put in both legal and actual, exclusive possession of the property. The burden of doing a lawsuit goes to the landlord. So which rule is better? The English Rule may make more sense because
the landlord is the least cost avoider.
The landlord can make it right more cheaply than the tenant. The landlord is likely more sophisticated and
is more likely a repeat litigator. Also,
the court says that when you rent space, you’re paying for space rather than
the right to sue for it. So why would
the American Rule be the majority rule?
If you conceive of a lease as the sale of an interest in property, and
it’s not the landlord who is causing the problem, then once you’ve bought the property,
it’s your problem. If we think of the tenant
as the owner of a property interest, then we may find that the landlord no
longer has an interest. This keeps with
early conceptions of the lease.
Whichever
rule is adopted, it’s only a default rule that the parties can contract
around. Even in a state that follows the
American Rule, the lease could provide that the tenant will get actual as well
as legal possession at the start of the lease.
But the problem is that most tenants wouldn’t think to include the
language of the English Rule in the lease.
Once you say the American Rule is the default rule and that the parties
can bargain for whatever they want, the problem is that the tenant may assume
that they’re getting a guarantee of actual possession and they won’t think to
bargain for it.
Don’t
look at an old case like this and assume that the state of the law is the same
now as it was then.
Slater v. Pearle
Vision Center, Inc.
Why
did Pearle care? If they’re paying the
rent, why didn’t they just occupy the premises?
If they did move in, they would have operating expenses. The shopping mall doesn’t want to look “suckier”. If you
have empty stores, suckyness is manifest.
The
court starts out as construing this agreement as mainly a contract rather than a conveyance. But what difference does that make? If we interpret this as a sale, we have a
one-time transaction between the parties and the tenant has a property
right. That would be the end of it. We would figure out the duties of the parties
based on that relationship. But if we
construe it as a contract, we get into a whole different set of guidelines for
construing contracts, including the implied obligation of good faith. The court will interpret the contract to
protect the reasonable expectations of the parties. The modern view of the lease is that it is
predominantly a contract and not a conveyance of property interest. Most courts would look at this as an ongoing relationship that is much the
same as a contract. This case is
consistent with the modern trend of how leases are construed.
The
court gets into the doctrine of necessary implication, which is that
expectation that the parties must do those things that are just in order for
the bargain to be carried out. Then the court
delves into some of the specific lease provisions that seem to suggest that
both parties contemplated that occupying the property was part of the
deal. On the other hand, the lease doesn’t
say that the store must remain open on certain days or for certain hours. These provisions give some support to the court’s
argument, Braunstein says. The main
point is that courts treat leases as contracts and then adopt doctrines of good
faith and fair dealing into the contract.
This represents a fairly modern view of the lease and how it ought to be
construed.
Assignment and subleases
What’s
an assignment? What’s a sublease? And what is the difference?
You
have an assignment when the tenant
transfers his entire interest in the
lease and the leased premises to an assignee.
The consequence is that the tenant remains liable. The tenant is always liable to the landlord because there is still a contract
between the landlord and the tenant. The
landlord and tenant are in privity of contract. The tenant has obligated himself to pay the
rent and keep up the premises as provided for in the lease, and the tenant will
have to do that no matter what, unless there is a novation, where the landlord says
that he’ll take the new tenant and let the old one off the hook. In addition, the landlord and tenant are in privity of estate. We talked about this in connection with adverse
possession. It’s hard to define, and in
fact it might not mean much at all. But privity of estate occurs when landlord and tenant both own interest
in the same property at the same time.
Another way to put it is that it’s a relationship that exists among
parties so that it is reasonable to conclude that they owe obligations to each other.
This is a very fuzzy definition, because: just what is that reasonable
relationship? Let us say for the time
being that landlord and tenant are in privity of
estate because they own the same land at the same time.
When
there is assignment, and the tenant gives up all his rights to the assignee,
then privity of estate no longer exists between the landlord
and tenant, but rather between the landlord and the new tenant (the
assignee). The original tenant now has
nothing! The new privity of estate is sufficient to
enforce the provisions of the lease against the assignee. The landlord has two theories of enforcement: privity of contract
and privity of estate. Privity of contract
will always exist between the landlord and the original tenant. Privity of estate will be between the landlord and the
assignee after assignment.
What’s
the difference between an assignment and a sublease? The technical difference is that when a tenant
subleases the property, the tenant retains an interest (a reversion). The easiest way to conceive of that is if the
tenant has a three year lease and subleases the property to someone for two
years. The tenant has a reversion at the
end of the sublease because the tenant hasn’t leased for the entire term. When the tenant subleases the property, the tenant
retains a reversionary interest. The tenant
is, as always, in privity of contract with the landlord,
but also remains in privity of estate with the landlord because the tenant
continues to hold the estate. The sublessee is neither in privity
of estate nor privity of contract with the landlord. The landlord’s only remedies will be against
the tenant, not against the sublessee!
Sometimes
the courts apply these rules in a mechanical way. Sometimes they’ll look and see if there’s a reversion. If there is, it’s a sublease, and if there
isn’t, there’s an assignment. Other
courts will consider the intent of the parties.
But the problem with the latter approach is that the courts can’t figure
out the intent of the parties because the parties didn’t really know what they
were doing!
In
this case, the instrument states that it’s a “transfer”, “assignment” and “sublease”! In general, in order to enforce a contract
you must be in privity of contract. If you promise someone that you’ll do
something for them and you don’t do it, I
can’t sue. Only the person who has been
harmed can sue. But there is an
exception: two people can enter into an assumption
agreement for the benefit of a third party.
The tenant and a sublessee can enter into an
assumption agreement under which the sublessee agrees
to perform all of the duties required under the lease. Then
privity of contract is created between the landlord
and the sublessee under the third-party beneficiary
assumption agreement. The point is that
the property law concepts of assignment and sublease, plus the contract concept
of third-party beneficiary agreements.
Some problems
The
landlord leases to the tenant for a three year term. The tenant subleases for the remainder of the
term, reserving the right to re-enter.
Neither the tenant nor the sublessee pays any
rent. What rights does the landlord
have, and against whom? This looks like
a sublease to me rather than an assignment.
In that case, the landlord can only recover against the tenant but not
the sublessee.
There is still privity of contract between the
landlord and the original tenant. The landlord
has a contract with the tenant to pay every month! It doesn’t matter what other agreements the tenant
has made! But can the landlord recover
against the sublessee? There is no assumption agreement in this
case. Is there privity
of estate between the landlord and the sublessee? This is essentially the same case as Davis v. Vidal. The tenant still has a reversionary interest. Should the sublessee
fail to pay the rent, the tenant can exercise his right of entry. In
Does
this opinion make sense? Is reservation
of the right of entry to make something not
an assignment? If the sublessee doesn’t pay the rent, what could the tenant
do? The tenant could pay the rent
himself. He could also evict the sublessee using a Forcible Entry and Detainer
statute! This isn’t exactly the same, but it is similar to the right of entry. Given that the tenant has this power anyway,
many courts would say that such a right of entry is not sufficient to prevent this from being an assignment because
this is substantially similar to what the law would allow anyway. That would put the landlord and the sublessee in privity of contract. The reservation of the right of entry seems
to be the main factor that the court relied upon. In order to proceed
again an assumption agreement, the tenant and the sublessee
must enter into such an agreement. That’s
not what we had here.
An
assignment is a transfer of the entire
interest. A sublease is a transfer
of less than the entire interest. If the entire interest is transferred, the landlord
can sue the tenant based on privity of contract, and sue the sublesse
based on privity of estate. The result of the case won’t really be based
on what the parties call the transaction, but rather on the intent of the
parties as judged by the court.
Another
problem: The landlord does a three year lease with the tenant. The tenant transfers the lease to somebody
else for the balance of the term. The
new tenant pays rent to the landlord for a while, but then the new tenant
defaults. The landlord sues the original
tenant for the rent past due. Will the
original tenant be liable? Let’s say
that the new tenant agreed to pay the rent directly to the landlord. So the new tenant has breached his promise to
the landlord. There is another theory
here besides contract. It’s
subrogation! When the tenant pays a debt
that is primarily due from someone else,
the tenant is subrogating the rights
of the landlord, and the tenant can enforce any of the rights that the landlord
could have enforced. The landlord could
have sued the subtenant, so the tenant could do the same. The subtenant is the one in possession. The subtenant doesn’t. The tenant can step into the landlord’s shoes
and sue the subtenant.